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NIFT conducts a entrance exam for admission in Bachelors degree programs in Fashion Design, Knitwear Design, Apparel Production, Accessory design, Leather design etc. The selection of the interested candidates is done through the written test and interview.

The entrance test is divided into 4 parts. These are Creative Ability test, General Ability Test, Situation test and Managerial Ability test. In the Creative Ability test, candidates are tested for their skills, innovation and design ability. They have to use colors to depict their creativity. Then comes the General Ability test. In this, candidates are tested on Quantitative ability, business domain test, analytical ability, English comprehension and communication ability. In Situation test, candidates are given a situation & material and they have to show their innovation. The last one is Managerial ability test which consists of case study, business domain test and logical ability.
Test Details:
Section Name : NIFT - 1
No of questions : 100
Time(minutes) : 120
Start Test

This paper is up to 40 questions only.

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Question 1 of 100

Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer.




1. Sunit is more talkative than


2. any boy in the class because


3. he is not afraid of the teacher


4. since he is his brother



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Question 2 of 100
Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer.



1. Lawyers these days can practice


2. civil law, criminal law


3. or the law of the Constitution


4. or all of them together



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Question 3 of 100
Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer



1. She was wearing a wig that was


2. far more attractive than


3. the other women who had


4. their natural hair



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Question 4 of 100
Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer



1. The only persons in the theatre


2. on that stormy night


3. were the staff of the theatre


4. and me




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Question 5 of 100
Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer.



1. After finding the problem


2. the mechanic cleaned the carburetor


3. started the engine


4. and found it working smoothly



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Question 6 of 100
Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer.



1. If one reads the newspaper regularly


2. you will be surprised at the improvement


3. in your overall reading skills


4. from day to day



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Question 7 of 100
Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer



1. She was as pretty


2. if not prettier than



3. any other girl who had come


4. to participate in the meeting




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Question 8 of 100
The average of 6 numbers is 19. The average of 5 of these is 20. What is the sixth number?



1. 24


2. 38


3. 119


4. 14



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Question 9 of 100

Two poles of heights 35 m and 20 m stand on a plane surface. If the distance between their feet is 20 m, what is the distance between their tops?




1. 50 m


2. 25 m


3. 40 m


4. 55 m



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Question 10 of 100
of of of a number is 8. What is the number?



1. 72


2. 68


3. 84


4. 70



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Question 11 of 100
If 3x = , x = ?



1. 3


2. 9


3. – 3


4. ? 9



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Question 12 of 100

25% of a number is greater than the other number by 5. If sum of the numbers is 70, what is the ratio of the larger number to the smaller number?




1. 6 : 1


2. 3 : 1


3. 5 : 1


4. 4 : 1




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Question 13 of 100

The third proportional of (X2 – Y2) and (x – y) is ________.




1.


2.


3. (x + y)2


4. x3 ? y3



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Question 14 of 100
A sum of Rs. 1560 is to be distributed amongst A, B and C in the proportion of : : . What is the share of A?



1. Rs.780


2. Rs.640


3. Rs.720


4. Rs.840



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Question 15 of 100
Which of the following is the smallest number which when divided by 20, 25, 35 and 40 leaves the remainders as 12, 17, 27 and 32 respectively?



1. 1200


2. 1400


3. 1408


4. 1392



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Question 16 of 100

The floor of the rectangular room of size 10 m (length) x 8.5 m (width) x 8.5 m (height) is to be carpeted so as to leave a margin of 1.25 m from all sides. What would be the area of the carpet required?




1. 45 sq.m.


2. 40 sq.m


3. 60 sq.m


4. 90 sq.m



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Question 17 of 100

6 examiners working 5 hours a day can check 750 answer books in 8 days. At the same rate of checking, in what period of time can 4 examiners examine 800 answer books, working 8 hours a day?




1. 4 days


2. 8 days


3. 9 days


4. 12 days



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Question 18 of 100

Two railway stations A and B are 300 km apart. In what time will two trains, starting from the opposite ends and travelling towards each other with equal speeds, meet each other?




1. 4 hrs


2. 1 hr.


3. 2 hrs


4. Cannot be determined



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Question 19 of 100
A sailor travels in a boat 8 km downstream in 40 minutes and returns back to the same point in 1 hour. What is the speed of the boat in still water?



1. 6 kmph


2. 12 kmph


3. 9 kmph


4. 10 kmph



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Question 20 of 100

The average age of a couple was 26 years at the time of their marriage. After 11 years of marriage, the
average age of the family with 3 children becomes 19 years. What is the average age of the children?



1. 8yrs


2. 6 yrs


3. 7 yrs


4. 11 yrs



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Question 21 of 100
Milk and water are mixed in the ratio 4 : 1 to form solution A and in the ratio of 3 : 2 to form solution B. A man takes equal quantities of solutions A and B and mixes them together. What is the ratio of quantities of milk to that of water in the mixture so formed ?



1. 7 : 3


2. 1 : 1


3. 3 : 7


4. 3 : 2



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Question 22 of 100
What is the ratio of side of a square to the radius of a circle, both with equal perimeters?



1. 1 : II


2. 2 : II


3. II : 1


4. II : 2



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Question 23 of 100
Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer.



1. There is only the plantain


2. and one apple in the refrigerator


3. so let us go to the market


4. and buy some more fruits



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Question 24 of 100
Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer



1. Like his brother who did not wear his helmet


2. and was injured in the accident


3. Rajan was always careful


4. and wore his helmet without fail



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Question 25 of 100
Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer



1. It is futile to discuss this further


2. since neither him nor you


3. is going to agree


4. with the other on this issue



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Question 26 of 100

Direction: In the following question four words or phrases have been underlined. Only one underlined part in each sentence is not acceptable in standard English. Pick up the part (A), (B), (C) or (D).







I have seen (A) as bed or worse scenes of (B) disorder at the English fair (C) than in (D) any other fair.



1. (A)


2. (B)


3. (C)


4. (D)



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Question 27 of 100
Direction: In the following question four words or phrases have been underlined. Only one underlined part in each sentence is not acceptable in standard English. Pick up the part (A), (B), (C) or (D).
This is the third (A) communication we have (B) sent and(C) we are very surprised that we have received (D) no answer



1. (A)


2. (B)


3. (C)


4. (D)



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Question 28 of 100
Direction: In the following question four words or phrases have been underlined. Only one underlined part in each sentence is not acceptable in standard English. Pick up the part (A), (B), (C) or (D).
The officers are (A) now (B) perfectly happy fishing, boating, shooting, (C) playing cricket and (D) other sport.



1. (A)


2. (B)


3. (C)


4. (D)



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Question 29 of 100
Direction: In the following question four words or phrases have been underlined. Only one underlined part in each sentence is not acceptable in standard English. Pick up the part (A), (B), (C) or (D).


While in conversation(A) with a high ranking military officer (B) he told me that (C) at the head-quarters
nothing (D) was known



1. (A)


2. (B)


3. (C)


4. (D)



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Question 30 of 100
Direction: In the following question four words or phrases have been underlined. Only one underlined part in each sentence is not acceptable in standard English. Pick up the part (A), (B), (C) or (D)

(A) The fear of an (B) impending invasion has more to do (C) than even the debasing of the coinage with the (D) financial difficulties



1. (A)


2. (B)


3. (C)


4. (D)



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Question 31 of 100
Directions: Select the correct word or phrase to complete a grammatical and idiomatic sentence
The patient was cheered --- by the news that she was likely to be discharged in a day or two.



1. on


2. up


3. out


4. down



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Question 32 of 100
Directions: Select the correct word or phrase to complete a grammatical and idiomatic sentence
The thieves had driven ten miles before the police caught – them



1. on with


2. upon


3. up to


4. up with



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Question 33 of 100
Directions: Select the correct word or phrase to complete a grammatical and idiomatic sentence
As soon as the visitors dishonest purpose was discovered, he was --- the door



1. show with


2. shown to


3. shown


4. shown out of



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Question 34 of 100
Directions: Select the correct word or phrase to complete a grammatical and idiomatic sentence
As soon as my attention was --- the dangerous state of the staircase, I got it repaired.



1. drawn for


2. drawn upon


3. drawn near


4. drawn to




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Question 35 of 100
Directions: Select the correct word or phrase to complete a grammatical and idiomatic sentence.
---- pompous, he was an entertaining companion



1. Before


2. Never


3. Though


4. Despite




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Question 36 of 100
Directions: Choose a word or phrase which is opposite in meaning to the key word.
Esteem



1. veneration


2. revere


3. mighty


4. disdain




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Question 37 of 100

Directions: Choose a word or phrase which is opposite in meaning to the key word.
Eternal



1. permanent


2. perpetual


3. transitory


4. active



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Question 38 of 100
Directions: Choose a word or phrase which is opposite in meaning to the key word


Eulogistic




1. pretty


2. critical


3. brief


4. stern



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Question 39 of 100
Directions: Choose a word or phrase which is opposite in meaning to the key word
Euphonious



1. strident


2. lethargic


3. literary


4. significant



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Question 40 of 100
Directions: Choose a word or phrase which is opposite in meaning to the key word
Evitable



1. unavoidable


2. eatable


3. half-baked


4. crisp